Расчет: Qy0Dap - 1
V =
+π
+ h^3+
+ π* ( r1^2+ r2^2)+h
| 1 |
| / 6 |
+ h^3+ | 1 |
| / 2 |
* ( r1^2+ r2^2)+h|
|
V =
+π+ h^3+
+ π* ( r1^2+ r2^2)+h$$V$$ = $$\frac{1}{6}+\pi+h^{3}+\frac{1}{2}+\pi\cdot (r1^{2}+r2^{2})+h$$
| 1 |
| / 6 |
+ h^3+ | 1 |
| / 2 |
* ( r1^2+ r2^2)+h$$V$$ = $$\frac{1}{6}+\pi+h^{3}+\frac{1}{2}+\pi\cdot (r1^{2}+r2^{2})+h$$V =
+π+ h^3+ r1^2* π+ r2^2* π+h$$V$$ = $$\frac{2}{3}+\pi+h^{3}+r1^{2}\cdot \pi+r2^{2}\cdot \pi+h$$
| 2 |
| / 3 |
+ h^3+ r1^2* π+ r2^2* π+h$$V$$ = $$\frac{2}{3}+\pi+h^{3}+r1^{2}\cdot \pi+r2^{2}\cdot \pi+h$$V = 0.66667+π+ h^3+ r1^2* π+ r2^2* π+h$$V$$ = $$0.66667+\pi+h^{3}+r1^{2}\cdot \pi+r2^{2}\cdot \pi+h$$
+ h^3+ r1^2* π+ r2^2* π+h$$V$$ = $$0.66667+\pi+h^{3}+r1^{2}\cdot \pi+r2^{2}\cdot \pi+h$$